A STUDY OF 1 CORINTHIANS CHAPTER 7
IN LIGHT OF ERRONEOUS TEACHING ON MARRIAGE, DIVORCE AND REMARRIAGE.

Bill Dedmon

Introduction:

A. Is there a need?

1. Book after book is being written to give a blanket approval for remarriage regardless of the reason for the divorce.
2. Some may think we are unloving who take dim view of such unscriptural marriages.

B. If indeed people can live in an unscriptural marriage then it would follow that one could continue in any thing unscriptural. If not, why not?

C. We do not have time to exhaust the subject. I will try to remain as much as possible in 1 Corinthians chapter 7.

I. DO ALL MEN HAVE A RIGHT TO MARRY?

A. Olin Hicks asserts in his book What The Bible Says About Marriage, Divorce and Remarriage. Page 39,40. "when the Bible says any thing about marriage eligibility there is always given a blanket approval."
B. The faulty conclusion is based on a misinterpretation of 1 Corinthians 7:2 Nevertheless, {to avoid} fornication, let every man have his own wife, and let every woman have her own husband.

1. A need to understand the Bible is in order. One of the basics of hermeneutics is not to interpret one verse to contradict another.
2. Only one restriction or prohibition must exist for the term "every" to have some qualifications. Mt. 19:9
3. The Bible says in Matt. 3:5,6 that all Judea was baptized of John. However, Luke 7:30 says, "But the Pharisees and lawyers rejected the counsel of God against themselves, being not baptized of him." It is obvious that all does not always mean all!
4. How many times must something be said to make the conditions binding?

a. Mark 16:16 says to be baptized in order to be saved.
b. Acts 16:31 "And they said, Believe on the Lord Jesus Christ, and thou shalt be saved, and thy house."
c. Because baptism is not mentioned in verse 31 am I to conclude that baptism is not essential for salvation? We know that because of the statement in Mk. 16:16 baptism must be included in "believe."

C. Just for the record let us examine the text."To avoid fornication-immorality-sin. Let every man have his own wife..." Was paul speaking of marriage or a sexual relationship?

1. I hope that the proponents of the remarriage at will doctrine will say of course it's marriage. Then the fact that Paul condemned the fornicator in the Corinthian church should cause some rethinking in that camp. 1 Corinthians 5:1 "It is reported commonly {that there is} fornication among you, and such fornication as is not so much as named among the Gentiles, that one should have his father's wife". Now notice 1Corinthians 5:11 But now I have written unto you not to keep company, if any man that is called a brother be a fornicator, or covetous, or an idolater, or a railer, or a drunkard, or an extortioner; with such an one no not to eat.
2. There are those who teach that you cannot commit adultery or fornication if the parties are married to each other.
3. According to the theory propagated by this, is that it is impossible to commit "Adultery" or illicit sex in marriage. Too bad Paul did not know that. He owes the Corinthians an apology.

D. The idea that Paul is saying that all unqualified are entitled to a mate is absurd when he plainly states in 1 Cor.7:10 that some should remain with out a marriage partner.

A. The unmarried and widows.

1. Does the unmarried mean divorced?

a. Remember Jesus said that if one was put away and not for fornication sinned when marrying again.
b. Paul said to the one who departs to remain unmarried.

B. The same logic it is better to marry (even in sin) that to burn with passion is to say it is better for an alcoholic to take a drink of liquor than to have such a craving for it.

C. One cannot interpret Paul meaning divorced (by the way we are told that it doesn't matter why the divorce is; divorced and therefore unmarried) Paul talks to several classes of people. Remember Rom.7 and interpret the obscure in light of the obvious.

1. The unmarried verse 8
2. The widows verse 8
3. The divorced verse 11

D. Paul tells the unmarried and the widows to marry if they cannot contain. He tells the divorced (without Jesus exception for fornication) to remain unmarried or go back to their former mate.

A. Even Olin Hicks admits that an unscriptural marriage is sin. But then teaches that one could remain in that marriage without further sin.

1. Paul said, "If you are circumcised..."
2. Paul said, "If you are a slave..."

B. In the context of those remarks he did not mention being divorced and remarried for some unscriptural grounds.

C. If you could remain in one sinful situation ie. an unscriptural marriage why not in any sinful situation? If not why not. Does God make a difference in sins?

D. A man with two living wives (a polygamist) would not have to give one up "Remain as he was called." If some one says that would be unscriptural must remember Mt. 19:9.

A. Compare 1 Cor. 7:28 with Romans 7:1-3 and 1 Cor. 7:39

B. Paul addresses these classes of unmarried-widows and virgins. verse 39 and verse 27,28

C. If the divorced are considered, they must be those scripturally divorced.

1. Jesus said that the divorced could not marry except for fornication.
2. If the exception Jesus used is non binding and without substance (according to the false teachers) then John 3:5 "Jesus answered, Verily, verily, I say unto thee, Except a man be born of water and {of} the Spirit, he cannot enter into the kingdom of God." Being born of the water and spirit is of no value and meaningless and people can go to heaven without the benefit of baptism.

A. We need to pay attention to the Bible.

B. The Bible means what it says.

C. Going to heaven should be the most important thing in our lives.